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Question Number: 5661Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct RE: Pro Adult Jim McGuire of , asks...A defender makes a passback to the keeper...It hits an opposing team's forward's legs on the way back to the keeper...The keeper picks it up. Should the ref award anything? Answer provided by Referee Chuck Fleischer Jim once the pass to the keeper has been made it is understood he may not use his hands. How this differs from other deliberate kicks to the keeper is the ball touches an opponent on it's way, that changes the equation and puts the keeper's hands back in play. When the keeper picked it up he was within the Law to do so. Allowing play to continue was the right thing to do. Is that what happened?..Regards,
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View Referee Chuck Fleischer profileAnswer provided by Referee Keith Contarino The ref should have done nothing and allowed play to continue as the ball had touched an opponent before the keeper picked up the ball with his hands. ATR 12.20 states the ball must be DIRECTLY received by the keeper after being deliberatly kicked. Being touched by another player negates this.
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View Referee Keith Contarino profileAnswer provided by Referee Dawson Hi JIm, .I would like to think the principles by which the pass back concept which was time wasting is not at odds with the idea of a deliberate kick with the foot to the keeper being reset if an attacker touches the ball in any way. The problem as I see it is the word directly is not used in the laws only in the USSF ATR. I sense some conflict and we have instigated some conversations on the back burners to help clarify if not a single position at least the national position on which you rely on for the truth as you know it. I quess I have an issue with a few things such as control and whether a miskick could be determined. I tend to compare this with offside which is not reset by deflections off the opposition and the criteria of involvement. ..We know that a quick attacker closing down on a poorly weighted pass to the keeper could reach the ball first or cause the keeper to misplay the ball. If he shot and the keeper saved it with the hands no one would consider the INDFK as relevant here. I admittedly stand on shakey ground. If we say a deliberate kick is not deliberate due to a deflection are we talking for both defender and attacker? A poorly weighted pass or one that goes off an opposing player is it a miskick?..To be honest in my personal opinion only, if as a referee I was confident the pass was hit back to the keeper and it meerly grazed a opposing player on the way it is an INDFK as the attempt was what is was. If at all uncertain no INDFK. A deliberate play on the ball by the attacker even if deflected would give credance to no infringement..A teammate played the ball deliberately with his foot and was sending it to the keeper so the keeper could play it. In spirit I feel ok with this concept in truth in law I remain skeptical. Cheers
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View Referee Dawson profileAnswer provided by Referee Powell This is simple, lets not complicate the issue...If the ball touches an opponent after a deliberate backpass the keeper is entitled to use his hands. The only issue you can bring to the debate is if the defender deliberately tried to circumvent the backpass by playing it off the defender. In which case you would give the YC and IFK. We have to be certain that it was a deliberate trick and not an accident...Keep Smiling.Steve Powell
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